Status and phase
Conditions
Treatments
Study type
Funder types
Identifiers
About
This randomized phase IIb trial studies how well ACTOplus met extended release (XR) works in treating in patients with stage I-IV oral cavity or oropharynx cancer that are undergoing definitive treatment. Chemoprevention is the use of drugs to keep oral cavity or oropharynx cancer from forming or coming back. The use of ACTOplus met XR may slow disease progression in patients with oral cavity or oropharynx cancer.
Full description
PRIMARY OBJECTIVES:
I. To determine whether 10-21 days of treatment with ACTOplus met XR will result in a decrease in proliferation index (Ki-67) expression in oral cavity/oropharyngeal tumor tissue as compared to placebo.
SECONDARY OBJECTIVES:
I. Compare differences in proliferation index (Ki-67) expression from baseline to post-exposure in visually normal appearing oral cavity/oropharyngeal tissue.
II. Compare immunohistochemical differences in the apoptosis biomarker cleaved caspase 3 from baseline to post-exposure in oral cavity/oropharyngeal adjacent visually normal appearing tissue and tumor tissue samples.
III. Compare immunohistochemical differences from baseline to post-exposure in oral cavity/oropharyngeal tumor tissue samples with regard to cyclin D1, p21 and biguanide or PPAR gamma associated pathway biomarkers; prospective biomarkers on the panel will include phosphorylated (p)AKT, pAMPK, pS6 (metformin), and PPAR gamma.
IV. Compare immunohistochemical differences from baseline to post-exposure of oral cavity/oropharyngeal tumor tissue samples with regard to tumor infiltrating immune cells (effector CD8 [CD8+]), regulatory CD4 T regulatory (Treg) (CD4+Foxp3+), tumor associated myeloid cells (CD68), PD1 and PD-L1.
V. Compare and correlate pre- and post-ACTOplus met XR treatment human ribonucleic acid (RNA)-sequencing (seq) gene analysis on total RNA samples from oral cavity/oropharyngeal adjacent visually normal appearing tissue and tumor tissue pre-and post-study treatment.
VI. Determine human papillomavirus (HPV) status in pre-treatment tumor tissue using p16 immunohistochemistry.
EXPLORATORY OBJECTIVES I. Compare pre- and post-study treatment fludeoxyglucose F-18 (FDG)-positron emission tomography (PET)/computed tomography (CT) scans with regard to standardized uptake value (SUV) of FDG and tumor burden using Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v) 1.1 in those participants with a preintervention standard of care staging FDG-PET/CT.
OUTLINE: Patients are randomized to 1 of 2 groups.
GROUP I: Patients receive ACTOplus met XR orally (PO) once daily (QD) for 10-21 days in the absence of disease progression or unacceptable toxicity. Patients may continue ACTOplus met XR PO QD for a maximum of 25 days if end of treatment biopsy/surgical treatment is delayed beyond day 22.
GROUP II: Patients receive placebo PO QD daily for 10-21 days.
Enrollment
Sex
Ages
Volunteers
Inclusion criteria
Participant has a newly diagnosed, histologically confirmed, stage I-IV squamous cell carcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the oral cavity or oropharynx and will be undergoing definitive surgical, radiotherapy, or chemoradiation treatment; patients who are NOT candidates for localized treatment (surgery, radiation or chemoradiation) with curative intent (i.e.patients with distant metastasis or contra-indication to localized treatment) are not eligible OR
Participant has a lesion in the oral cavity or oropharynx that is not yet biopsied but is highly suspicious for cancer; (randomization will be placed on hold until the presence of cancer is histologically confirmed, and a treatment plan is established; if the presence of cancer is not confirmed, the participant will be considered a screen failure)
The participant's primary tumor is accessible for the collection of 4 mm samples of tumor and adjacent visually normal appearing tissue for biomarker analysis and the participant is willing to have these samples collected at baseline and at the end of study visit. (The protocol requires the collection of fresh tissue for biomarker analysis)
Patients who have not yet had a diagnostic biopsy:
The tissue samples for biomarker analysis may be collected in conjunction with the patient's standard of care diagnostic biopsy but not until after the patient has signed informed consent and it has been determined that they meet all of the eligibility criteria for this protocol with the exception of normal organ and marrow function as defined by the clinical laboratory test results listed for that criterion. In this situation, because the patient would be having a biopsy regardless of whether or not they were participating in this study, it is not required to obtain these results prior to conducting the biopsy. It is however, required to confirm normal organ and marrow function prior to randomization.
Patients who are scheduled for a direct operative laryngoscopy with biopsy (DL biopsy) for diagnostic purposes may be candidates for this study provided the following criteria are met:
In this situation, randomization will be placed on hold until the following criteria are met:
Because these patient's lesions are not accessible to end of study tissue sample collection in the outpatient clinic setting, the only way to obtain those samples is in conjunction with standard of care surgical excision of the lesion. If the first line of treatment will be non-surgical, the patient will be considered a screen failure. Under no circumstances will DL biopsy be used for the sole purpose of collecting tissue samples for biomarker analysis.
Patients who have already had a diagnostic biopsy:
End of study tissue sample collection:
If surgical excision will be the patient's first line treatment, the end of study tissue samples for biomarker analysis will be collected in conjunction with that surgery. If, for any reason, the patient's surgery is delayed beyond Day 26, the end of study tissue samples may be collected in the outpatient clinic setting.
If the patient's first line of treatment will not be surgical excision, the end of study tissue samples for biomarker analysis will be collected in the outpatient clinic setting prior to initiation of the non-surgical treatment.
With the exception of candidates with a diagnosis of Gilbert's disease in which case the total bilirubin may extend up to 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal
Note: Due to the risks associated with hormonal methods of birth control, participants should not start hormonal therapy for the purpose of meeting the eligibility criteria for this protocol.
Exclusion criteria
Participant has received or will receive some form of treatment for their cancer prior to completing a minimum of 10 days of study agent dosing; (a biopsy is not considered a form of treatment)
Participant has a concurrent diagnosis of type I or type II diabetes that is being treated with insulin or an oral antidiabetic agent; (participants whose type II diabetes is controlled with diet and/or exercise alone are eligible provided they meet all other eligibility criteria)
Participant has taken any of the following medications within the past 3 months:
Participant is currently taking a strong CYP2C8 inhibitor (e.g. gemfibrozil [Lopid])
Participant is currently taking an enzyme inducer of CYP2C8 (carbamazepine [Carbatrol, Epitol, Equetro, Tegretol] cortisol [Hydrocortisone]; dexamethasone [Decadron]; phenobarbital [Luminal Sodium]; phenytoin [Dilantin, Phenytek, Novaplus Phenytoin Sodium]; primidone [Mysoline]; rifampin [Rifadin, Rimactane]; rifapentine [Priftin]; secobarbital [Seconal])
Participant is currently taking topiramate (Topamax) commonly used in epilepsy or to prevent migraines or other carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. zonisamide [Zonegran]; acetazolamide [Diamox Sequels]; or dichlorphenamide [Keveyis, Daranide])
Participant is currently taking a cationic drug or multidrug and toxin extrusion [MATE] inhibitor (e.g. amiloride [Midamor]; cimetidine [Tagamet]; digoxin [Lanoxin, Digitek, Digox]; dolutegravir [Tivicay]; morphine [Roxanol, Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin]; procainamide [Pronestyl, Procanbid]; quinidine [Quinidex, Cardioquin, Quin-G, Quinora]; quinine [Qualaquin, Quinamm, Quiphile]; ranitidine [Zantac, Deprizine, Gabitidine]; ranolazine [Ranexa]; triamterene [Dyrenium)] trimethoprim [Proloprim, Trimpex, Primsol]; vancomycin [Vancocin, Vancoled]; or vandetanib [Calpresa])
Participants is taking another investigational agent
Participant has a history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to ACTOplus Met XR
Participant has a contraindication to biopsy
Participants with a history of congestive heart failure or New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV functional status are excluded
Participant has a history of liver disease
Participant has > Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grade 1 limb edema (5 - 10% inter-limb discrepancy in volume or circumference at point of greatest visible difference; swelling or obscuration of anatomic architecture on close inspection)
Participant has a history of hypoglycemia
Participant is an active alcoholic or consumes excessive amounts of alcohol per the following definitions:
Female: More than 3 drinks on any day or a total of more than seven drinks in a week
Male: More than 4 drinks on any day or a total of more than 14 drinks in a week
1 drink =
Participant has a history of macular edema
Participant has a history of bladder cancer (including in situ bladder cancer)
Participant has a history of invasive cancer (other than non-melanoma skin cancer or cervical cancer in situ) active within 18 months prior to the baseline study visit; (participants who have a history of cancer that was curatively treated without evidence of recurrence in the 18 months prior to the baseline study visit are considered eligible)
Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
Participant is pregnant, breast feeding or planning to become pregnant; (all participants of childbearing potential regardless of method of birth control must have a negative pregnancy test at baseline; a woman is considered not to be of childbearing potential if she has had a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy, or if she is > 55 years of age with >= 2 years of amenorrhea)
Primary purpose
Allocation
Interventional model
Masking
6 participants in 2 patient groups, including a placebo group
Loading...
Data sourced from clinicaltrials.gov
Clinical trials
Research sites
Resources
Legal